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Asked 547 days ago by a user from Kempton Park, GAUTENG
I have been using a certain vehicle foe the past 5 years. it was bought for the purpose of taking children who live in a home to school and such. the home is to be closed at the end of the year. I was told by the owner that I could have the vehicle and it would be signed over into my name. He said that he had decided to give the vehicle to me for my own private use. A week later he phoned and told me that he was going to sell the vehicle to someone else. Is this right.
The answer depends. In most cases, you would have no claim. It is possible that you relied on the verbal agreement to your detriment or perhaps you suggered a loss of some kind, or the other party was unjustly enriched by some service you provided over the time of your use of the vehicle.
I would not be possible to knowfor certain unless the facts are fleshed out.
If you would like to discuss further over a free phone consult, feel free to contact me anytime that is convenient. I will not be notified if you respond through this format so I would advise emailing me directly if you care to respond.
DISCLAIMER: this is not intended to be specific legal advice and should not be relied upon as such. No attorney-client relationship is formed on the basis of this posting.
Thanks. There is (I think) more to this. About a year or so ago the gentleman brought some documents to (of which I signed) to have the vehicle put into my name. But up till today nothing happened. There have been a number of times in which he has told me (in front of witnesses) that he was going to give me the vehicle. It was on Saturday the 5th of this month (November) that he came to see me and said that the vehicle was mine and that I needed to go and get the forms to fill in the change ownership, of which I did the next day. I then sent him an sms to tell him that I have the documents II do have the sms). I do have many witnesses that will tell you that he had said the vehicle is mine.